superconductors

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winnie

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This is in response to a comment in http://forums.mikeholt.com/showthread.php?t=187018 but so totally off topic that I figured it should be in another thread.

Curious though... with no potential difference, which way does the current flow in this superconductor?

Even with no resistance, you still have inductance. The direction of current flow is determined by whatever initiated the current flow in the first place.

The 'common' use here on earth is for superconducting magnets used in things like MRI instruments.

You have a superconducting coil connected to an external power supply, with a 'superconducting switch' shunting the connection to the external supply. The coil gets chilled, and external power is applied to start current flowing and build up the magnetic field. These are large inductors, subject to significant mechanical stresses, and so you need to ramp up and adjust things slowly. Once the proper current flow and magnetic field is established, the switch is closed and the power supply disconnected. The current simply continues to flow in the superconductor.

Interestingly high magnetic fields can cause superconductor to cease to be super, and the mechanical stresses can cause wires to move and thus cause frictional heating, which will also cause the superconductor to cease to be super.

At the same time designers are always trying to push the limits with stronger and stronger fields, pushing the magnet right up to the edge. So with large magnets there is a very real possibility of 'quenching'. This means that you've pumped lots of energy into the magnetic field, when something happens to stop the superconductivity in a bit of conductor. Well as soon as a bit of conductor is causing ohmic heating, the surrounding conductors will heat up and stop superconducting. Pretty suddenly _all_ of the energy stored in the magnetic field is dissipated as heat and em radiation.

One of the spectroscope operators that I worked with as a student described seeing stars from being in the same room as a 5T magnet that quenched, just from being in the large changing magnetic field.

When large accelerator magnets are built, part of the process is called 'training' the magnet, where the field is intentionally built up until the magnet quenches. This has the effect of hammering the bits of coil that can move into place, so that the next time you can get to a higher field before the magnet quenches. You keep doing this until the field reaches the design requirements.

-Jon
 
If you change from zero current to some current flow, it is not DC.

Even if the direction of current flow does not change, if the magnitude of the current is changing then V=L*di/dt still applies.

-Jon

??

i step it like 0A(t=0s), +5A(t=300s), +10A(t=600s), +15A(t=900s), one direction only at any time t, =DC only.

i step it like 0A(t=0s), +5A(t=300s), +10A(t=600s), +15A(t=900s), +10A(t=1200s), +5A(t=1500s), 0A(t=1800s), one direction only at any time t, =DC only.

surely the change period has some reactance.
 
??

i step it like 0A(t=0s), +5A(t=300s), +10A(t=600s), +15A(t=900s), one direction only at any time t, =DC only.

i step it like 0A(t=0s), +5A(t=300s), +10A(t=600s), +15A(t=900s), +10A(t=1200s), +5A(t=1500s), 0A(t=1800s), one direction only at any time t, =DC only.

surely the change period has some reactance.

Exactly right. The inductor acts to oppose a change in current.

To _change_ the current in an inductor you need to apply a voltage to that inductor.

If you have a 'perfect' 1H inductor connected to a perfect 1V voltage source, the current will change at 1A/s.

The concept of reactance is derived from the basic equation of an inductor: V (applied voltage) = L (inductance) * di/dt (rate change of current)

'Reactance' as the ratio of V/I at steady state in an inductor doesn't really apply if the applied voltage to the inductor is not a sine wave, but the basic equation above still applies.

Your first series could happen if you have a perfect 1V source connected to a perfect 60H inductor.

-Jon
 
i think any series can happen, all depends on L and V applied (or a dV/dt), right?
at any time t though its all DC.

but if you have steady amps then what reactance are we talking about?
 
When you have steady current flow in a superconductor, there is no voltage. di/dt = 0

For any man made superconductor carrying current, there is always a time t=0 when there was no current flow, and then a later time where there is current flow, and between the two there has to be a change in current. There had to be a voltage applied to change this current.

When you find the primordial superconducting magnet which has been carrying current since before time began, be sure to call me first :)

-Jon
 
When you have steady current flow in a superconductor, there is no voltage. di/dt = 0

For any man made superconductor carrying current, there is always a time t=0 when there was no current flow, and then a later time where there is current flow, and between the two there has to be a change in current. There had to be a voltage applied to change this current.

When you find the primordial superconducting magnet which has been carrying current since before time began, be sure to call me first :)

-Jon

Chicken and egg. Does current flow because voltage is applied, or does voltage exist because current is flowing? :D
 
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