So aside from the obvious (and easily correctable) 404.2(A) violation, what could possibly be going on here? How can there be a voltage drop differential simply by changing the position of a switch? I also can't help but wonder if it's more than a coincidence that one of the four scenarios is 2/3 line voltage and the other two are about 1/3 line voltage. Can a bad switch create a voltage divider like this? Or is it only possible by having an unknown load being tapped somewhere else in the circuit?
I plan to get two new replacement 3-way switches tomorrow and re-test, but thought I'd throw this out there to see if I'm missing something obvious.
(The magenta wire is actually white, just changing it for pic clarity)
I plan to get two new replacement 3-way switches tomorrow and re-test, but thought I'd throw this out there to see if I'm missing something obvious.
(The magenta wire is actually white, just changing it for pic clarity)