mbrooke
Batteries Included
- Location
- United States
- Occupation
- Technician
How does transformer impedance vary from 50Hz to 60Hz and visa versa? If you take say a 480 volt delta 208Y 100Kva 10%Z 60Hz transformer and place it on a 400 volt 50Hz supply by how much will the impedance drop?
My understanding is that the impedance will go down substantially for two reasons: 1. The current will stay the same but the reduced voltage required to prevent magnetic saturation will lower the kva, thus when calculated the short circuit per kva will be higher. 2. X=2x3.14xfxL (if I am applying this equation correctly) dictates that reactive impedance goes down with frequency, so the equivalent magnetic circuit when drawn out of a transformer would theoretically present a lower impedance and in turn more fault current on the secondary. Would this correct? And how would one go about calculating it correctly?
Second, if I order a 100Kva 50Hz transformer, would it automatically have a lower impedance because their is 20% more iron right off the bat?
My understanding is that the impedance will go down substantially for two reasons: 1. The current will stay the same but the reduced voltage required to prevent magnetic saturation will lower the kva, thus when calculated the short circuit per kva will be higher. 2. X=2x3.14xfxL (if I am applying this equation correctly) dictates that reactive impedance goes down with frequency, so the equivalent magnetic circuit when drawn out of a transformer would theoretically present a lower impedance and in turn more fault current on the secondary. Would this correct? And how would one go about calculating it correctly?
Second, if I order a 100Kva 50Hz transformer, would it automatically have a lower impedance because their is 20% more iron right off the bat?