Something Different:

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Hameedulla-Ekhlas

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... when θv = θi.

In other words, when waveforms are in phase with each other, resistance is the third term of the equation.

Why is it not when waveforms are out of phase?

when waveforms are out of phase, it is due to lagging and leading ( inductance and capacitance )
 

Hameedulla-Ekhlas

Senior Member
Location
AFG
Why would we go to the trouble of using your formula when we can simply substitute the formulas of v(t) and i(t)...
v(t) = |v|cos(ωt)
i(t) = |i|cos(ωt+θ)

thus

v(t)/i(t) = |v|cos(ωt) / |i|cos(ωt+θ)​

yes, I had not given that for daily use and I just gave that for a different question a different answer.

By the way, can you prove it back v(t)/i(t) from that complex equation.

b3x7xf.png
 

steve66

Senior Member
Location
Illinois
Occupation
Engineer
The point is that the ratio, v(t)/i(t) varies from zero to infinity in a typical setting and is of no use in circuit analysis. Impedance, a constant, is defined for steady state analysis--phasors if you will. We are not into phasors in this discussion.

Utter nonsense!

Your point is simply wrong. Just because v(t)/i(t) = z(t) doesn't mean that v(0)/t(0) = z(0). The error here is you are trying to make a complex number fit on the real number line. Thats why you are getting a impedence that varies.

You won't see z written as a function of time in textbooks, because the time function goes away. z(t) = constant = z.

The correct way to do this problem is to transform to and back from the complex plane. Say v(t) =sin (wt) and i(t) = sin (wt+a).

V= 1 @0 and I = 1 @a. It follows from what we know about phasors that Z = 1 @-a. We can transform back Z to get z(t). z(t) is simply 1 ohm at an angle of -a, and we can simply call it z. That is the impedence.

I think you are forgetting that a phasor is simply a representation of time function. See if you can find any reference to "Steinmetz Algorithm".

Since z is a complex number, you cant simply divide the voltage at some time by the current at the same time and expect it to be z. v(0)/i(0) is not z.

Steve
 
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rattus

Senior Member
Your point is simply wrong. Just because v(t)/i(t) = z(t) doesn't mean that v(0)/t(0) = z(0). The error here is you are trying to make a complex number fit on the real number line. Thats why you are getting a impedence that varies.

You won't see z written as a function of time in textbooks, because the time function goes away. z(t) = constant = z.

The correct way to do this problem is to transform to and back from the complex plane. Say v(t) =sin (wt) and i(t) = sin (wt+a).

V= 1 @0 and I = 1 @a. It follows from what we know about phasors that Z = 1 @-a. We can transform back Z to get z(t). z(t) is simply 1 ohm at an angle of -a, and we can simply call it z. That is the impedence.

I think you are forgetting that a phasor is simply a representation of time function. See if you can find any reference to "Steinmetz Algorithm".

Since z is a complex number, you cant simply divide the voltage at some time by the current at the same time and expect it to be z. v(0)/i(0) is not z.

Steve
Only with a resistive load does this make any sense. In general it is still utter nonsense.

Impedance is the ratio of RMS voltage to RMS current, and it is undefined for instantaneous values.

z(t) is not mentioned in the texts because it does not exist!
 

steve66

Senior Member
Location
Illinois
Occupation
Engineer
Who thinks that the expression,

v(t)/i(t)

has any meaning? If so, what meaning?

v(t)/i(t) equals R +/- jX (thats an attempt to write "R plus or minus j reactance").

If you want to claim R +/- jX isn't an impedence, well....whatever.


Impedance is the ratio of RMS voltage to RMS current, and it is undefined for instantaneous values.

Again, v(t)/i(t) = z does not mean the dividing the voltage at a specific time by the current at that same time is going to equal z. z can have a resistive component, and a reactive component. So not being able to get a constant when you plug in values of t simply means you are doing the math wrong.

Impedence is also the ratio of the Peak voltage to the peak current. Oh, and those are instantaneous values.

z(t) is not mentioned in the texts because it does not exist!

It doesn't take a genius to realize that any variable or constant can be plotted as a function of time. A constant is going to plot as a horizontal line (like our z does), but how does that mean "it doesn't exist"???

Steve
 
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Smart $

Esteemed Member
Location
Ohio
yes, I had not given that for daily use and I just gave that for a different question a different answer.

By the way, can you prove it back v(t)/i(t) from that complex equation.
I don't know Ham'. Perhaps... perhaps not. I don't even know if it is a valid equation. I can't see any purpose in taking the time to prove, disprove a complex equation when a much simpler one is readily recallable from [my] memory.
 

rattus

Senior Member
Note to all:

Note to all:

The values of v(t) and i(t) are real--not complex--numbers. e.g.

v(t) = Em*sin(wt)--ranges between +/-1

i(t) = Im*sin(wt + phi)--ranges between +/- 1

That is all, you can't just jump ahead and treat them as phasors and then jump back.

Clearly, the ratio cannot be a constant, therefore it cannot be an impedance. Clearly the ratio ranges between +/- infinity! Smart even plotted it for us.

Furthermore, such a ratio is meaningless. Utter nonsense!
 

steve66

Senior Member
Location
Illinois
Occupation
Engineer
The values of v(t) and i(t) are real--not complex--numbers. e.g.

v(t) = Em*sin(wt)--ranges between +/-1

i(t) = Im*sin(wt + phi)--ranges between +/- 1

That is all, you can't just jump ahead and treat them as phasors and then jump back.

Would you feel better if I called everything a vector instead of a phasor? You can't seem to grap that a phasor (or a vector) is just a way to represent a number that has a phase angle associated with it. There is nothing magical about a vector or a phasor.


Clearly, the ratio cannot be a constant, therefore it cannot be an impedance. Clearly the ratio ranges between +/- infinity! Smart even plotted it for us.

Clearly the ratio is a constant. That constant is R +jX. Smart's graph included the same mathmetical error you keep making. You keep trying to combine two independent numbers into one single real number.

Furthermore, such a ratio is meaningless. Utter nonsense!

I'd like to see some support for that statement.
 

rattus

Senior Member
Would you feel better if I called everything a vector instead of a phasor? You can't seem to grap that a phasor (or a vector) is just a way to represent a number that has a phase angle associated with it. There is nothing magical about a vector or a phasor.

I repeat, these numbers are neither vectors nor phasors. A rotating phasor is of the form,

Vm[cos(wt) +jsin(wt)]

which is NOT the expression we are using. There is no "j" operator; there is no imaginary part.
You keep trying to combine two independent numbers into one single real number.
The one real number is the value of the expression. It does not carry a phase angle. The phase angle is part of the trig argument.

I'd like to see some support for that statement.

kingpb for one says it is meaningless.
 

rattus

Senior Member
What if?

What if?

What if v(t) is a step function and i(t) is an exponential?

Can we use phasors here?

Does v(t)/i(t) = k?

Does the idea of z(t) make any sense under these conditions?
 

Smart $

Esteemed Member
Location
Ohio
What if v(t) is a step function and i(t) is an exponential?

Can we use phasors here?

Does v(t)/i(t) = k?

Does the idea of z(t) make any sense under these conditions?
Given:
v(t) = |v|cos(ωt)
i(t) = |i|cos(ωt+θ)
where θ = φi - φv
The following appears to be valid:
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|/|i|*cos(θ)+tan(ωt+θ) ...when θ>0
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|/|i| ...when θ=0
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|/|i|*cos(θ)-tan(ωt+θ) ...when θ<0
Ham' might be interested in proofing this claim. I haven't proofed it, but I have plotted it and the 'curves' were identical to plotting v(t)/i(t) for the example I used. Yet...

...even if it is valid, it is not much different than simply writing the equation as:
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|cos(ωt)/|i|cos(ωt+θ)​

btw, I'm not saying the above has any meaningful significance :D

...though...
Z = |v|/|i|
...is always significant ;)
 

Hameedulla-Ekhlas

Senior Member
Location
AFG
Given:
v(t) = |v|cos(ωt)
i(t) = |i|cos(ωt+θ)
where θ = φi - φv
The following appears to be valid:
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|/|i|*cos(θ)+tan(ωt+θ) ...when θ>0
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|/|i| ...when θ=0
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|/|i|*cos(θ)-tan(ωt+θ) ...when θ<0
Ham' might be interested in proofing this claim. I haven't proofed it, but I have plotted it and the 'curves' were identical to plotting v(t)/i(t) for the example I used. Yet...

...even if it is valid, it is not much different than simply writing the equation as:
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|cos(ωt)/|i|cos(ωt+θ)​

btw, I'm not saying the above has any meaningful significance :D

...though...
Z = |v|/|i|
...is always significant ;)

Yes, Smart$,

Not it is not like this. What rattus is saying, he is completely right that v(t) = i(t) R it is a Ohm 's Law.
One of our professor had come from Kansas University and he taught us some electrical topics. Now I opened his given material and it looks for me that rattus is correct. Let me make it a clear reason for that.

Give me time to proof for it that he is right.
 

rattus

Senior Member
Given:
v(t) = |v|cos(ωt)
i(t) = |i|cos(ωt+θ)
where θ = φi - φv
The following appears to be valid:
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|/|i|*cos(θ)+tan(ωt+θ) ...when θ>0
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|/|i| ...when θ=0
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|/|i|*cos(θ)-tan(ωt+θ) ...when θ<0
Ham' might be interested in proofing this claim. I haven't proofed it, but I have plotted it and the 'curves' were identical to plotting v(t)/i(t) for the example I used. Yet...

...even if it is valid, it is not much different than simply writing the equation as:
v(t)/i(t) = z(t) = |v|cos(ωt)/|i|cos(ωt+θ)​

btw, I'm not saying the above has any meaningful significance :D

...though...
Z = |v|/|i|
...is always significant ;)

Smart, you are out of the ball park. The 'what if' waveforms are not sinusoidal, one is a step function, the other is an exponential.

Furthermore, the magnitudes of v and i change with time--not the same as Vrms/Irms or Vm/Im. You should write the expression as Vm*sin(wt), etc.

And, you are wasting your time trying to define z(t) which is not mentioned in any text I ever saw because it is utter nonsense.
 

steve66

Senior Member
Location
Illinois
Occupation
Engineer
The original question was:

Who thinks that the expression,

v(t)/i(t)

has any meaning? If so, what meaning?

It obviously has meaning, and everytime someone tries to explain that to you , you cry foul and respond by placing another new constraint on the origninal question.

Since the original question, you have since added that we:
-can't use chapter 1, were in chapter 2,
- can't use any math that too advanced (I guess chapter 3 is out too)
- can't use phasors,
-can't use vectors,
- can't use impedence
- can't use any transforms,
- can't use complex numbers,
- can't use anything with a phase angle
- can't use any reacatance

....The list goes on and on.

Its basically gotten to the point where you are asking "does impedence have any meaning if I don't let you mention impedence".

So again, I have to agree with Spongebob that this thread is nonsense.
 

Smart $

Esteemed Member
Location
Ohio
Smart, you are out of the ball park. The 'what if' waveforms are not sinusoidal, one is a step function, the other is an exponential.
If I'm out of the ball park it's because I'm chasing down my homerun ball. ;)

Don't know where you're coming up with one 'what-if' waveform being a step function, but you are correct about the exponential one. What do you think the tangent function is?

Furthermore, the magnitudes of v and i change with time--not the same as Vrms/Irms or Vm/Im. You should write the expression as Vm*sin(wt), etc.
For complex number z = x + iy the complex modulus is |z| = |x+iy| = √(x?+y?). Just a different way to denote the modulus (m).

And, you are wasting your time trying to define z(t) which is not mentioned in any text I ever saw because it is utter nonsense.
I realize it is a useless pursuit, but that doesn't mean it's nonsense or that I can't have some fun :D
 
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rattus

Senior Member
Something wrong here:

Something wrong here:

It is obvious that some do not understand the difference between steady state and instantaneous equations. The value of,

sin(wt + phi),

is just a number that you would read off your calculator or from the trig tables. The phase angle "phi" merely shifts the function in time and does not appear in the value. For example, at t= 0 and phi = 45 deg.,

sin(0 + 45) = sqrt(2)/2

That is all, just a real number with no phase angle in the result. No complex numbers either and no phasors which actually appear in Chapter 8.

Clearly this function ranges between +/- 1.

Therefore the ratio, sin(wt)/sin(wt + 45) ranges between +/- infinity. No other math is required. Since the value varies wildly, it is of no use in circuit analysis.

The concept of impedance is developed from the instantaneous equations with the aid of some higher math. It is only applicable to steady steady state equations.

Instantaneous equations, in general, require the application of differential equations which are messy. Steady state methods avoid this messiness.
 

gar

Senior Member
Location
Ann Arbor, Michigan
Occupation
EE
100514-1008 EST

In an earlier post I created a time varying resistance by motor driving a variable resistor.

I can do the same with a variable capacitor and thus have a time varying reactive component.

.
 

drbond24

Senior Member
The original question was:



It obviously has meaning, and everytime someone tries to explain that to you , you cry foul and respond by placing another new constraint on the origninal question.

Since the original question, you have since added that we:
-can't use chapter 1, were in chapter 2,
- can't use any math that too advanced (I guess chapter 3 is out too)
- can't use phasors,
-can't use vectors,
- can't use impedence
- can't use any transforms,
- can't use complex numbers,
- can't use anything with a phase angle
- can't use any reacatance

....The list goes on and on.

Its basically gotten to the point where you are asking "does impedence have any meaning if I don't let you mention impedence".

So again, I have to agree with Spongebob that this thread is nonsense.

I love this post, and not just because I get honorable mention at the end. :) I was cheering before I even read that. ;)
 

kingpb

Senior Member
Location
SE USA as far as you can go
Occupation
Engineer, Registered
The original question was:



It obviously has meaning, and everytime someone tries to explain that to you , you cry foul and respond by placing another new constraint on the origninal question.

Since the original question, you have since added that we:
-can't use chapter 1, were in chapter 2,
- can't use any math that too advanced (I guess chapter 3 is out too)
- can't use phasors,
-can't use vectors,
- can't use impedence
- can't use any transforms,
- can't use complex numbers,
- can't use anything with a phase angle
- can't use any reacatance

....The list goes on and on.

Its basically gotten to the point where you are asking "does impedence have any meaning if I don't let you mention impedence".

So again, I have to agree with Spongebob that this thread is nonsense.


Hey, where's my credit, I said it was meaningless at post #11.:roll:
 
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