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JB78:
Nothing makes particular sense from what you have said.
The wording "effective" current is usually used in a classroom setting to try to have a student understand that for a particular AC waveform that a simple multiplier can be used to relate that AC waveform to a DC current based on having the same heating effect in a resistor. As the AC waveform changes that multiplier changes. For a sine wave a ratio is Ipeak * 0.707 = Irms. Theoretically one can calculate this ratio with calculus. The 0.707 value is an approximation of the exact value of sq-root of 2 divided by 2.
In general I would use the words "effective" and RMS as being identical.
If you have a split phase system based on a center tapped 240 V secondary, your loads are 120 V, and you try to approximately balance the loads on you source, then one phase is loaded to 4*30 A and the other to 5*30 A. So you would use an RMS load current of 150 A. The 150 is the greater of the two split loads and will determine breaker and wire sizes.
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I agree. It doesn't make sense. I have never seen this done before. My main reason for questioning it, along with the calculated load being reduced so far. You mentioned splitting the loads for 120v. Maybe that has something to do with it??
One other thing about this pedestal feeder: as the chart indicates, it is (9) 120/240v 30a receptacles for the load calculation. But each of the (5) pedestals has a 20a/120v GFCI receptacle that is dropped from the calculation, as allowed by NEC table 555.12, note-1. Any thoughts on this additional info?
Again, I want to understand why he chose this method, as I may have to split-up or add some circuits and want to stay consistent.
Thank you,
JB78