hardworkingstiff
Senior Member
- Location
- Wilmington, NC
I would think the amps would divide so that the voltage drop would be equal on the sets of wire, no matter how many sets you have.
hardworkingstiff said:I would think the amps would divide so that the voltage drop would be equal on the sets of wire, no matter how many sets you have.
You can do it the hard way by working out the impedance of each of the conductors, solve the total parallel impedance, and use that total impedance to solve for the parallel circuit voltage drop. Now because the conductors are in parallel the voltage drop across each is the same. You take the voltage drop and use it along with the impedance to solve for current in each of the conductors. I don't really want to take the time to do that, but if someone does, they will find that they get almost the same answer that I will get using the percentage of length method.If I have five 1/0 AWG copper conductors for one particular phase;
98', 99', 100', 101' and 102'
and the load is 750 amps how is the current distributed between these 5 conductors.
hardworkingstiff said:1st, remember that I quit college after 1.5 years in 1972.
hardworkingstiff said:Don,
I like your method. What I don't understand is the method of making the transition from the % of the length to the % of the current. Can you help?
Thanks.
The percentage of length is directly related to the resistance of the conductor, while the current is inversely related. That is the longest wire will have the largest percentage of length, the largest resistance and the smallest percentage of current. The shortest will have the smallest percentage of length, the least resistance and the largest percentage of current. It really does the same thing as when you took the reciprocal of the percentage.I like your method. What I don't understand is the method of making the transition from the % of the length to the % of the current. Can you help?