It is possible for one item to fit more then one definition or have it's usage fulfill more then one purpose.kwired mentioned in post # 32 various NEC definitions of a switch. A definition of isolating switch is there. A definition of load break switch is there. But a combined definition of a switch of isolating as well as load break as in IEC is not there. That appears to be a deficiency in NEC.
None of them if IEC standards are not to be applied. If IEC standards are a design requirement then if you use IEC equipment you should be fine.Which switches in US to be re-named as disconnect switches per IEC definition for them?
I have said it before and I will say it again. We will argue about just about anything in here!None of them if IEC standards are not to be applied. If IEC standards are a design requirement then if you use IEC equipment you should be fine.
I have said it before and I will say it again. We will argue about just about anything in here!
To quote a past POTUS, "That depends on what the definition of 'is' is."
It is not a matter of applicability of IEC standards. A 4 pole IEC switch is not likely to pass a surge through ungrounded conductor in its open position. Can the same be applicable to any NEC switch other than isolating switch?None of them if IEC standards are not to be applied. If IEC standards are a design requirement then if you use IEC equipment you should be fine.
It is not a matter of applicability of IEC standards. A 4 pole IEC switch is not likely to pass a surge through ungrounded conductor in its open position. Can the same be applicable to any NEC switch other than isolating switch?
What a wishful thinking. By the way, does the code mention any frequency limit for applicability of its rules?It is a grounded conductor, if it's potential rises above earth so do all grounded items in the building keeping the potential from the grounded conductor to the equipment the same.
All I remember is that it had something to do with his dalliance with Monica Lewinsky and his denial thereof. I believe it hinged upon his intent to deny something specific whereas it was interpreted by others to refer to something more general.What exactly did Bill Clinton mean, when he was debating the meaning of the word "is"?
Is it like a past vs present tense thing?
Or is it like a ser vs estar thing? (ser = identity/description, estar = feeling/location/condition)
All I remember is that it had something to do with his dalliance with Monica Lewinsky and his denial thereof. I believe it hinged upon his intent to deny something specific whereas it was interpreted by others to refer to something more general.
Did I successfully circumlocute the forum rules with that response?
Circumvented, I believe you mean...I'm sure I "circumlocuted" the forum rules with that question in the first place.
All I remember is that it had something to do with his dalliance with Monica Lewinsky and his denial thereof. I believe it hinged upon his intent to deny something specific whereas it was interpreted by others to refer to something more general. ...
"It depends on what the meaning of the word 'is' is. If the--if he--if 'is' means is and never has been, that is not--that is one thing. If it means there is none, that was a completely true statement....Now, if someone had asked me on that day, are you having any kind of sexual relations with Ms. Lewinsky, that is, asked me a question in the present tense, I would have said no. And it would have been completely true."
I think that Clinton should have answered, completely truthfully, "It's none of your damn business."It came from his explaining to the grand jury about how he wasn't really lying when he said to his top aides that with respect to Monica Lewinsky, "there (is) nothing going on between us." He then said:
Translate: he was parsing the earlier statement to avoid looking like he lied, by saying he meant "at this exact moment" vs "at any time ever, now or in the past". it may be obvious to all concerned that his aides meant "at any time ever, now or in the past", because that's what they would have been concerned with. But because that conversation was on the record, Clinton had to be held accountable for it and how it contradicted his stand on that issue with regard to being impeachable for committing perjury under oath.
This by the way is why, whenever you get involved with a lawyer in a courtroom, you hear them ask questions in the most round about fashion, such as "Are you now, or have you ever been, involved in anything even suggestive of an intimate relationship with Monica Lewinski?" Whomever had asked Clinton that question must not have been a lawyer, Clinton was one. He saw a tiny loophole in how the question was posed and drove a truck through it. That's what lawyers do.
Remember this whenever you get involved in a lawsuit, trust me, it's important...