Different phase to ground voltage readings

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don_resqcapt19 said:
It will be different as you have moved the rods and the rod to earth connection will not be the same.
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Of course. I meant that if you moved the electrodes farther apart, you'd get a new set of 6 pair-wise resistances, which should still be expressable as the pairwise sums of a new set of 4 electrode resistances. My thinking (perhaps wrongs) was that if distant earth resistance was non-zero, it would show up more at larger distances. So maybe it would be better to arrange the rods as a long skinny rectangle (but with the short edges large enough to avoid near-field effects.)

Anyway, is the basic idea correct, that this is what is meant by the statement that the resistance of the earth itself is 0?

Cheers, Wayne
 
A simpler way of expressing the idea that the resistance of the earth is zero is this:
If you take two electrodes and move them farther and farther apart the resistance between them does not increase without limit but approaches a constant value which we can (and do) associate with the sum of the two electrode resistances.
At closer distances the electrode to electrode resistance is actually lower because the zones of influence of the two electrodes overlap.

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GoldDigger said:
If you take two electrodes and move them farther and farther apart the resistance between them does not increase without limit but approaches a constant value which we can (and do) associate with the sum of the two electrode resistances.
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I take it that the above statement is under the simplifying assumption that the electrode resistances are constant, even as one electrode is changing location.

It seems to me that the statement just implies that the earth's resistance is constant, at least for sufficiently large distances. Is there some strong theoretical reason that constant has to be zero? The experiment I suggested with 4 electrodes would show whether that constant is zero. Is it?

Cheers, Wayne
 
wwhitney said:
I take it that the above statement is under the simplifying assumption that the electrode resistances are constant, even as one electrode is changing location.

It seems to me that the statement just implies that the earth's resistance is constant, at least for sufficiently large distances. Is there some strong theoretical reason that constant has to be zero? The experiment I suggested with 4 electrodes would show whether that constant is zero. Is it?

Cheers, Wayne
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It is not really zero, but it approaches zero just because of it's huge cross sectional area.
 
wwhitney said:
I take it that the above statement is under the simplifying assumption that the electrode resistances are constant, even as one electrode is changing location.

It seems to me that the statement just implies that the earth's resistance is constant, at least for sufficiently large distances. Is there some strong theoretical reason that constant has to be zero? The experiment I suggested with 4 electrodes would show whether that constant is zero. Is it?

Cheers, Wayne
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It is taken to be zero rather than some small value because you can make the two electrode resistance arbitrarily small by using better electrodes.
If you took the earth resistance to be some non-zero number you would sometimes have to say the electrode resistance is negative. :)

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GoldDigger said:
A simpler way of expressing the idea that the resistance of the earth is zero is this:
If you take two electrodes and move them farther and farther apart the resistance between them does not increase without limit but approaches a constant value which we can (and do) associate with the sum of the two electrode resistances.
At closer distances the electrode to electrode resistance is actually lower because the zones of influence of the two electrodes overlap.

Sent from my XT1585 using Tapatalk
Click to expand...

So another thought experiment: We have two electrodes. The first one is in, say, Intercourse Pennsylvania and found to be 30 ohms. Then we have another electrode in say Bong Bong, New South Wales, Australia that is measured at 50 ohms. Now we take an ohm meter with really long leads that have no resistance and measure the resistance between these two electrodes. We get 80 ohms yes?
 
Besoeker said:
With respect, unless/until we know that the NEC is applicable for this application, any explanation is somewhat irrelevant.
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The number of hoops you will jump through to avoid admitting that a UK resident is not familiar with US electrician slang is amazing. :D.

You, are the one that pointed to the NEC definition when that did not work out suddenly the NEC is irrelevant. :roll:
 
iwire said:
The number of hoops you will jump through to avoid admitting that a UK resident is not familiar with US electrician slang is amazing. :D.

You, are the one that pointed to the NEC definition when that did not work out suddenly the NEC is irrelevant. :roll:
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I did not say it was irrelevant.
 
electrofelon said:
So another thought experiment: We have two electrodes. The first one is in, say, Intercourse Pennsylvania and found to be 30 ohms. Then we have another electrode in say Bong Bong, New South Wales, Australia that is measured at 50 ohms. Now we take an ohm meter with really long leads that have no resistance and measure the resistance between these two electrodes. We get 80 ohms yes?
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Yes!

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You will begin to see what Nikola Tesla was trying to accomplish with his experiments in Colorado Springs and later at Waldenclyffe, NY. He was using properties of the Earth and resonance to transmit electrical energy to the entire planet.
 
electrofelon said:
So another thought experiment: We have two electrodes. The first one is in, say, Intercourse Pennsylvania and found to be 30 ohms. Then we have another electrode in say Bong Bong, New South Wales, Australia that is measured at 50 ohms. Now we take an ohm meter with really long leads that have no resistance and measure the resistance between these two electrodes. We get 80 ohms yes?
Click to expand...
I would also think the answer is yes.
 
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