I don't. It's an irrelevance.Given a VFD and a motor, a motor that powered without VFD exhibits a significant power factor, if that power factor disappears (becomes insignificant) when powered through the VFD, to what do you attribute the PFC?
I don't. It's an irrelevance.Given a VFD and a motor, a motor that powered without VFD exhibits a significant power factor, if that power factor disappears (becomes insignificant) when powered through the VFD, to what do you attribute the PFC?
Interesting but of what relevance to the thread topic?For those interested in one advantage of firing angle control of a vsc ref Patel and Holt
they develpoed a method in the early 70's to mitigate harmonics by manipulation of firing angle (among other parameters)
a vsc (or csc) can be used for much more than freq conversion
attached is a diagram showing the pf of various converter sections by firing quadrant
as can be seen by the phasors the rectifier can be induct, cap, resist (lag, lead, unity)
Interesting but of what relevance to the thread topic?
I'm very familiar with firing angle control. It is not relevant to PWM ccontrol.firing angle is used with pwm which answers your question, or more precisely your belief firing angle has no relevance to pwm power devices
the diagram show the rectifier is a C load at some points and affects pf
my post is probably more relevant than your critique of mine, the readers will decide
and likely as relevant as many others in this thread
what is your point and why do you care and w i t h made you arbitrator of relevace lol
the premise of the post is rather silly
does a linear relationship exist between i in and i out for a 1 ph in / 3 ph out converter
is power in ~ power out + losses
for avg rms value
and can this be used to size the vfd for 1 to 3 ph application
1.732 is a good base number
considering losses 2 is a good rule of thumb
verify 1 ph line i < vfd i rating
select next std size
previous posts show that is the guidance from mfgs
this horse has been beat to death and resurrected
as I showed in the model both are true
but we knew that
I'm very familiar with firing angle control. It is not relevant to PWM ccontrol.
Can we leave it at that?
Then I shall let you continue to believe that.no, we can't let an incorrect statement stand
firing angle control IS used with pwm, so very relevant
Then I shall let you continue to believe that.
As is often the case, I think that you are both right in your own way.I'm very familiar with firing angle control. It is not relevant to PWM ccontrol.
Can we leave it at that?
Converter. Not inverter.Firing angle control used on a pwm converter for harmonics mitigation
it is also an inverterConverter. Not inverter.
lolFiring angle control used on a pwm converter for harmonics mitigation
Harmonic mitigation is usually on the line side of the converter stage of VFDs these days.it is also an inverter
fiy
the original unedited post said converter
lol
Harmonic mitigation is usually on the line side of the converter stage of VFDs these days.
I guess the discussion is closed.or by manipulating firing angle (among other parameters)
If current for active power taken by motor on single phase side is required, the formula used is okay. But if actual current is required on single phase side for harmonics calculation for imposing penalty by POCO, then that formula can not be used.In the interest of fairness, I am opening a new thread here based on side band discussions that I had removed from a previous thread as not being germane to the OP's question, and I have closed that thread because the OP's question was already answered before this tangent ensued.
http://forums.mikeholt.com/showthread.php?t=184058 for reference.
So as a service to valued members who think I am wrong, I am allowing them to show me how that is, because I have been teaching this very issue for 10+ years and if I am indeed wrong, I need to change my thinking.
So here is my stated premise on a subject that is basically unique to phase conversion equipment.
Given: Voltage is equal (230V for argument sake, because that is primarily where this takes place). Motor is 3 phase, lets say the load is 10kW to try to make things easier with nice round numbers. Input to the VFD is 230V single phase, output of the VFD is 230V 3 phase. VFD input power factor is .95
My premise: Input current TO THE VFD is equal to the Output current to the motor x 1.732, because of the following well established and published formulae:
Three phase; I = W/V x PF x 1.732 ergo I = 10,000/230 x .95 x 1.732 = 26.42A
Single phase; I = W/V x PF ergo I = 10,000/230 x .95 = 45.76A
45.76/26.42 = 1.732
So tell me where and why this does not apply.
Hmm. The displacement power factors PF in the three phase side and single phase side as used in the formula may not be same in reality!If current for active power taken by motor on single phase side is required, the formula used is okay.
It’s relatively simple to make 3 phase power calculations.
In operation, two single phase lines of current are distributed among three output lines of power from the phase converter. To calculate what input power is needed, the square root of three (1.732) is used as a multiplier of the three phase current value found on the motor data plate. The resulting value is the amount of power, expressed in amps, required at the input side of phase converter.
Here’s a simple example of the equation:
You’re preparing to drive a three phase low-horsepower motor rated at 10 amps.
Single phase to 3 phase power calculation input requirement = The square root of 3 (1.732) x 10 amps
= 1.732 x 10 amps
= 17.32 Amps
Single phase power input in this instance is 17.32 Amps
This has been taken directly from: North America Phase Converters web page.
Jraef is right.