- Location
- Wisconsin
- Occupation
- PE (Retired) - Power Systems
I question your reluctance to answer two simply phasor subtractions.It is silly because I have already demonstrated my expertise, such as it is.
I can surmise, it is your concern over what the results will be.
What part of cutting a single winding in half creates an inequality?But the question is about an inequality:
I do not know how to make it any straighter.A straight answer please.
By cutting a single winding in half you created two identical voltages. Your are free to assign any direction you want to them. Your are free to make one waveform the inverse of the other. But when you are done the math must be repeatable for A+B=C, A=C-B, B=C-A or for A-B=C, A=C+B, and -B=C-A.
However you have been asking about a single voltage wave form and it inverse.
Inverting a single waveform does not shift it in time, it simple changes the magnitude, I have posted a link to an application that graphs this for you..
When applying phasors, and a negative magnitude is encountered, the common practice is to multiply the magnitude by (-1) and modify the angle by either adding or subtracting PI radians, or 180?. So a purist would never use Vbn=-Vnb as a final result. Instead they would say Vbn=Vnb@180? which is still just a single waveform, with its reference point swapped.
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