???
I was hoping to work on the MV VD equations from a weeks back today, but instead I have been trying to convince myself the earlier spreadsheet is correct.
If we break this down into a straight forward V=IZ equation....from your earlier notes.
Define the LOAD current as Imag <ph ang.
If I calculate Zline = Z mag<ph ang
Vdrop or Vline = Imag x Z mag ....ph ang irrelevant to MAG of Vdrop
No multiplying by SQRT-3
Multiply by 2 if it is a single phase circuit.
Agree or disagree ?
3 ph one way L x sqrt3 for total drop
the NEC values are based on a CKT pf = 0.85 at rated ampacity (not cond Z ph ang)
assume 500 kcmil steel, 360 A
X = 0.048
R = 0.029
X/R = 1.6552 so ang = 58.86 deg, ph ang = 0.517 NOT 0.85
Z = R x 0.85 + X x sin(arccos 0.85) = 0.0499 (table 0.050)
if the ckt pf is different it can corrected
Z new pf = R x pf + X x sin(arccos pf)
v = 600/0 vac, i = 360/-31.8 A (ckt pf = 0.85) and L = 500'
Z cond = sqrt3 x 500/1000 x (0.029 + j 0.048) = 0.0251 + j 0.0416
= 0.0486/58.9 deg
Z load = 1.6236/31.01 deg, load pf 0.8571
Z ckt = 1.6667/31.8 deg, pf 0.85
the sum of Z cond + Z load yields the CKT pf 0.85