Yea, looks like iwire was right!! only a few more to go...
But I can't help myself
Yea, looks like iwire was right!! only a few more to go...
120209-2343 EST
rolandrc:
Is it clear to you that you can parallel two voltage sources that have the same amplitude and frequency, if the two are in phase (meaning zero phase difference between the two voltages)?
Then do you see that, if there is any shift between the two voltages that is not N * 360 there is some circulating current as a result of the phase shift and it is greatest at a shift of 180 deg?
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And reversed polarity is not the same thing as shifting a sine wave in time.
I assume he said it for the same reason I pointed it out, and the same reason why you have since dodged the discussion. No one is contesting that they are mathematically equivalent. However, you repeatedly state that they are exactly the same. You already acknowledged that they were not exactly the same earlier today.Now Ronald, why do you say that? They are mathematically equivalent.
Is for hexaphase which you get from three centre-tapped windings, an arrangement commonly used on low voltage high current rectifiers.A 180 deg shift is not described as in phase.
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Because they are exactly what was asked about.
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I posted the original question and the follow up question.Jim, can you elaborate a bit.
I posted the original question and the follow up question.
What do you think is off topic?
Too bad. However, I am not going to guess at what you are questioning.Not off topic. Your one sentence reply doesn't answer the questions for me.
Not off topic. Your one sentence reply doesn't answer the questions for me.
I think there are plenty of sentences in this thread with the intent of answering your question.
What do you think would be germane?None of them has convinced me that these arguments are germane to the original question.
It's just a simple question.
A simple answer would be fine.
??? If that is true then how do you suppose we establish the phase relationships for three phase circuits where the coils are separate? I appreciate the effort but you've built the rest of the argument on a faulty foundation so you will have to try again a different way.
The one-sided use of the term sure makes it seem that way.
Then it appears you & I are just not in agreement on terminology. It would appear we agree on the physics.
Can anyone justify the argument that describing a waveform as either an inverse or being shifted 180 degrees is germane to the OP's question?
Can anyone explain why the fact that V1 and V2 are provided by a single transformer winding has anything to do with the OP's question.
Now Ronald, why do you say that? They are mathematically equivalent.
I think there are plenty of sentences in this thread with the intent of answering your question.
Iwire was right. 600 posts and no conclusion in sight!
Counting down......
I would say that the 2nd leg doesn't function as a second phase. We cannot drive 2-phase loads with it. Therefore it is a single phase system. Doesn't matter where or how the waves were generated.V1, V2 being supplied by a single secondary winding means this is a single-phase circuit with a voltage divider at N. If the windings were separate coils then it wouldn't be a voltage divider.
If V1 is described with a phase angle, that implies it is an ideal waveform. therefore -V1 = V2. Even if we do say V2 is apparently out of phase by 180 degrees. What does that matter?Lots of things are mathematically equivalent but not physically equivalent.
I would say that the 2nd leg doesn't function as a second phase. We cannot drive 2-phase loads with it. Therefore it is a single phase system. Doesn't matter where or how the waves were generated.
...irrelevant. It still doesn't answer the OP's question. Phase is not defiined by the type of load either.Nice, simple, pragmatic...
It matters because you have made the following statement many times over the years, but then sidestep the topic before it can be discussed.Even if we do say V2 is apparently out of phase by 180 degrees. What does that matter?
It's not nitpicking. You have repeatedly made a very specific statement that isn't true. In my opinion, it is the repetition of this statement that is one of the main reasons why so many of the other readers don't understand this topic. It is also one of the few (if not only) reasons why I engage in these discussions at all..... then V1n and V2n are as Bes says antiphase. They don't just appear to be so, they are....